1. What percentage of the United States adult population has smoked tobacco during their lifetime?
A. 25%
B. 65%
C. 71%
D. 50%
2. Higher incidences of smoking behavior are observed among which of the following groups:
A. Individuals with health insurance coverage
B. Individuals with lower educational status
C. Individuals with access to smokeless tobacco
D. Individuals with a past exposure to smoking behavior
3. During what century did the harmful effects of smoking become a cause for concern?
A. 1800s
B. 1600s
C. 1900s
D. 1700s
4. During the early 20th century, the age of initiation of smoking was below
A. 15
B. 20
C. 18
D. 13
5. Smoking can extend the length of time that an individual lives with a disability by how many years?
A. 4 years
B. 6 years
C. 2 years
D. 8 years
6. Which of the following conditions is not associated with tobacco use:
A. Cancer
B. Diabetes
C. Emphysema
D. Heart disease
7. What is the total annual cost of lost productivity related to tobacco use in the United States?
A. $90 million
B. $97 billion
C. $200 million
D. $80 billion
8. Which of the following terms, included in the 5As, can clinicians use to assess a patient's degree of nicotine dependence?
A. Agree
B. Alert
C. Acquire
D. Ask
9. Which of the following agents are currently U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-approved for smoking cessation:
A. Clonidine
B. Nortriptyline
C. Varenicline
D. Phenelzine
10. Nicotine is believed to exert its effect by which of the following activities:
A. Attenuating the effects of glutamate
B. Acting on the nicotinic cholinergic receptor
C. Antagonizing N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA)
D. Inhibiting norepinephrine reuptake
11. Which of the following is not a contraindication to nicotine replacement therapy (NRT):
A. Life-threatening arrhythmias
B. Severe or worsening angina pectoris
C. Diabetes mellitus
D. Hypersensitivity reactions
12. Which of the following is a commonly observed side effect of NRT:
A. Neck stiffness
B. Dizziness
C. Malaise
D. Dysphagia
13. What is the recommended dose for the nicotine lozenge for an individual who smokes his first cigarette less than 30 minutes after waking up in the morning?
A. 1 mg
B. 4 mg
C. 2.5 mg
D. 2 mg
14. Which of the following regimens includes the recommended initial and maintenance doses for bupropion for smoking cessation:
A. 150 mg daily for 7 weeks
B. 150 mg once daily, increasing to 150 mg every other day after one week
C. 150 mg once daily for 3 days, increasing to 150 mg twice daily for 12 weeks
D. 150 mg every other day for 7 to 12 weeks
15. Which of the following adverse effects of varenicline has led to the issuance of a boxed warning label by the FDA:
A. Extrapyramidal effects
B. Cardiovascular events
C. Neuropsychiatric events
D. Increased risk of infections
16. Nortriptyline is a tricylic antidepressant that is believed to aid smoking cessation based on which of the following mechanisms:
A. Weak epinephrine agonist
B. Strong dopamine agonist
C. Weak nicotinic receptor antagonist
D. Strong alpha-adrenergicagonist
17. Which of the following is the proposed dose range for clonidine for smoking cessation:
A. 0.25 mg to 0.5 mg by mouth daily
B. 0.15 mg to 0.35 mg by mouth daily
C. 0.15 mg to 0.75 mg by mouth daily
D. 0.75 mg to 1 mg by mouth daily
18. Which of the following smoking cessation therapies when taken does not require a selected “quit” date while still smoking:
A. Clonidine
B. Bupropion
C. Nicotine lozenge
D. Nicotine inhaler
19. Which of the following smoking cessation therapies is contraindicated in patients with a current or past history of eating disorders or seizures:
A. Nicotine inhaler
B. Varenicline
C. Bupropion
D. Nortriptyline
20. Pharmacists can play a role in promoting smoking cessation through which of the following activities:
A. Providing cost analysis of smoking cessation therapies
B. Educating patients on long-term benefits of smoking cessation
C. Offering discounts on smoking cessation therapies
D. Advocating the use of smokeless tobacco
Evaluation Questions
21. To what extent did the program meet objective #1?
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
22. To what extent did the program meet objective #2?
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
23. To what extent did the program meet objective #3?
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
24. To what extent did the program meet objective #4?
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
25. Rate the effectiveness of how well the program related to your educational needs:
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
26. Rate how well the active learning strategies (questions, cases, discussions) were appropriate and effective learning tools:
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
27. Rate the quality of the faculty:
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
28. Rate the effectiveness and the overall usefulness of the material presented:
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
29. Rate the appropriateness of the examination for this activity:
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
30. Rate the effectiveness of how well the activity related to your practice needs:
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
31. Rate the effectiveness of how well the activity will help you improve patient care:
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
32. Will the information presented cause you to change your practice?
A. Yes
B. No
33. Are you committed to making these changes?
A. Yes
B. No
34. As a result of this activity, did you learn something new?
A. Yes
B. No
35. What is your practice setting or area of practice?
A. Community Pharmacy/Independent
B. Community Pharmacy/Chain
C. Hospital/Health Systems
D. Administrative/Pharmacy Director
E. Critical Care Pharmacy
F. Long-term Care
G. Managed Care/PBM
H. Oncology/Specialty Pharmacy
I. Industry/Manufacturing
36. How many years have you been in practice?
A. <5
B. 5 – 10
C. 11 – 20
D. >20