1. Which of the following medications enhances T-cell proliferation and activation by binding to cytotoxic T-lymphocyte–associated antigen-4 (CTLA-4)?

2. RD is a 43-year-old woman with newly diagnosed melanoma of the upper back that has metastasized to her liver. Pathology is negative for an activating BRAF V600 mutation. RD has no comorbidities and is not taking any medications. Which of the following statements about first-line treatment options for RD is true?

3. PL is a 58-year-old man with newly diagnosed metastatic melanoma of the brain. He is asymptomatic. Pathology is positive for a BRAF V600E mutation. Which of the following treatment options is best for PL?

4. AG is a 73-year-old woman with newly diagnosed melanoma of the left thigh that has metastasized to her liver. Pathology is positive for a BRAF V600E mutation. Which of the following statements about treatment options for AG is correct?

5. TW is a 63-year-old man with metastatic melanoma of the lungs. After cycle 2 of nivolumab/ipilimumab he developed grade 3 transaminitis. He started prednisone 1 mg/kg/d. After 2 weeks, his transaminitis improved to grade 1, and he started a steroid taper. Today, he presents to clinic for a follow-up appointment. His oncologist plans to resume treatment with nivolumab/ipilimumab. TW is currently taking prednisone 30 mg/d. Which of the following statements is correct?

Evaluation Questions

6. How confident are in your treatment choices for the patients in the post-test?

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