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1. The initial, core pathophysiologic defect of type 2 diabetes is:

A. Beta cell destruction B. Decreased glucagon secretion from the pancreas C. Increased insulin resistance D. Decreased insulin secretion from the pancreas

2. Which of the following statements accurately describes the contribution of fasting plasma glucose (FPG) and postprandial glucose (PPG) to hyperglycemia according to hemoglobin A_1C (A1C)?

A. FPG and PPG contribute equally at all A1C levels B. FPG contributes more as the A1C increases C. PPG contributes more as the A1C increases D. PPG contributes more at all A1C levels

3. Which of the following treatment goals for postprandial glucose (PPG) is recommended by the American Diabetes Association?

A. 1-hour PPG < 140 mg/dL B. 2-hour PPG < 140 mg/dL C. 2-hour PPG < 180 mg/dL D. 2-hour PPG < 130 mg/dL

4. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the risks of postprandial hyperglycemia?

A. Postprandial hyperglycemia has been associated with increased cardiovascular mortality B. Fasting plasma glucose is a better predictor of cardiovascular mortality than postprandial glucose (PPG) C. Long-term studies have consistently shown that lowering PPG reduces the risk of cardiovascular mortality D. Postprandial hyperglycemia does not appear to increase the risk of long-term diabetes complications

5. Which of the following medications primarily targets postprandial glucose (PPG)?

A. Glimepiride B. Metformin C. Pioglitazone D. Repaglinide

6. Which of the following medications lowers hemoglobin A1C by slowing the rate of carbohydrate absorption in the small intestine?

A. Nateglinide B. Miglitol C. Saxagliptin D. Dapagliflozin

7. Which of the following statements accurately compares glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonists (GLP-1 RAs) and dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors?

A. GLP-1 RAs are taken by mouth; DPP-4 inhibitors are administered by subcutaneous injection B. GLP-1 RAs slow gastric emptying and increase satiety; DPP-4 inhibitors do not slow gastric emptying or affect satiety C. GLP-1 RAs are well tolerated; DPP-4 inhibitors cause gastrointestinal adverse effects such as nausea D. GLP-1 RAs are weight neutral; DPP-4 inhibitors cause weight loss

8. Compared to regular human insulin, rapid-acting insulin analogs:

A. More closely mimic physiologic prandial insulin secretion B. Are more likely to cause hypoglycemia C. Are not recommended by American Diabetes Association guidelines because of their high cost D. Have a longer duration of action

9. Which of the following glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonists (GLP-1 RAs) is categorized as a short-acting GLP-1 RA that primarily targets postprandial glucose (PPG)?

A. Albiglutide (Tanzeum) B. Dulaglutide (Trulicity) C. Exenatide (Byetta) D. Liraglutide (Victoza)

10. Mr. Parker is a 59-year-old obese man with type 2 diabetes for 12 years. He takes metformin 1000 mg twice daily and insulin glargine 36 units subcutaneously once daily. His hemoglobin A1C (A1C) today is 7.9%. He self-monitors his blood glucose levels in the morning before breakfast. His average fasting plasma glucose (FPG) is 118 mg/dL. Which of the following plans is most reasonable?

A. Increase insulin glargine to 40 units subcutaneously once daily B. Start an alpha-glucosidase inhibitor C. Start a sulfonylurea D. Start a glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonist

Maintenance is scheduled for 8/7/2023 7:00 AM EST - 8:00 AM EST.

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1. The initial, core pathophysiologic defect of type 2 diabetes is:

2. Which of the following statements accurately describes the contribution of fasting plasma glucose (FPG) and postprandial glucose (PPG) to hyperglycemia according to hemoglobin A_1C (A1C)?

3. Which of the following treatment goals for postprandial glucose (PPG) is recommended by the American Diabetes Association?

4. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the risks of postprandial hyperglycemia?

5. Which of the following medications primarily targets postprandial glucose (PPG)?

6. Which of the following medications lowers hemoglobin A1C by slowing the rate of carbohydrate absorption in the small intestine?

7. Which of the following statements accurately compares glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonists (GLP-1 RAs) and dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors?

8. Compared to regular human insulin, rapid-acting insulin analogs:

9. Which of the following glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonists (GLP-1 RAs) is categorized as a short-acting GLP-1 RA that primarily targets postprandial glucose (PPG)?

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Maintenance is scheduled for 8/7/2023 7:00 AM EST - 8:00 AM EST.

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1. The initial, core pathophysiologic defect of type 2 diabetes is:

2. Which of the following statements accurately describes the contribution of fasting plasma glucose (FPG) and postprandial glucose (PPG) to hyperglycemia according to hemoglobin A1C (A1C)?

3. Which of the following treatment goals for postprandial glucose (PPG) is recommended by the American Diabetes Association?

4. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the risks of postprandial hyperglycemia?

5. Which of the following medications primarily targets postprandial glucose (PPG)?

6. Which of the following medications lowers hemoglobin A1C by slowing the rate of carbohydrate absorption in the small intestine?

7. Which of the following statements accurately compares glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonists (GLP-1 RAs) and dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors?

8. Compared to regular human insulin, rapid-acting insulin analogs:

9. Which of the following glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonists (GLP-1 RAs) is categorized as a short-acting GLP-1 RA that primarily targets postprandial glucose (PPG)?

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2. Which of the following statements accurately describes the contribution of fasting plasma glucose (FPG) and postprandial glucose (PPG) to hyperglycemia according to hemoglobin A_1C (A1C)?