1. What is the best explanation for why solid oral dosage forms have an increased risk for esophageal erosion in non-human patients?
A. Non-human species have a more acidic gastrointestinal pH than humans.
B. Non-human species have a slower gastric transit time than humans.
C. Non-human species benefit less from the effects of gravity on solid dosage forms.
D. All of the above factors are responsible for this increased risk.
2. Compared with dolichocephalic dogs, brachycephalic dogs are more susceptible to which of the following?
A. Nasal tumors.
B. Mycotic rhinitis.
C. Enamel hypoplasia.
D. Overheating.
3. Which of the following statements regarding gastrointestinal physiology in non-human species is true?
A. Non-human carnivores are more likely than humans to develop food poisoning.
B. Sustained-release dosage forms are preferred in non-human carnivores because of the longer gastric transit time.
C. Drugs with higher pKa values may be bioavailable when administered via the buccal route in herbivores.
D. Hindgut fermenting species are anatomically unable to vomit.
4. A drug that is contraindicated in the first trimester of pregnancy should not be given to which of the following animals?
A. A horse that is 120 days pregnant.
B. A dog that is 30 days pregnant.
C. A cat that is 20 days pregnant.
D. A rabbit that is 15 days pregnant.
5. Which of the following non-human patients has a clinically significant fever?
A. A horse with a body temperature of 103°F.
B. A dog with a body temperature of 103°F.
C. A cat with a body temperature of 103°F.
D. A rabbit with a body temperature of 103°F.
6. Which of the following statements about concurrent administration of ketoconazole and cyclosporine in dogs is true?
A. It should not be used because it could result in a potentially dangerous drug-drug interaction.
B. It may be prescribed because it allows for a lower dose of cyclosporine.
C. It should be avoided because use of cyclosporine is contraindicated in dogs.
D. It should be avoided because use of ketoconazole is contraindicated in dogs.
7. Which of the following statements best describes administration of diazepam to cats?
A. Oral administration of diazepam to cats has resulted in cases of fatal fulminant hepatic necrosis.
B. The glomerular filtration rate in cats is considerably slower than it is in humans, resulting in a much longer half-life for diazepam.
C. Cats have a genetic mutation of the ABCG2 blood retinal barrier transporter protein that permits diazepam to enter the aqueous humor, where it exerts a unique ocular toxicity in cats.
D. Cats have a renal portal elimination system whereby diazepam is first shunted to the kidneys instead of the liver, resulting in rapid clearance and a significantly shorter half-life in cats as compared to humans.
8. Dogs are deficient in which of the following metabolic pathways?
A. Glucuronidation
B. Sulfation
C. Methylation
D. Acetylation
9. The half-life of a drug eliminated by renal excretion is expected to be much shorter in which of the following species, relative to humans?
A. Cattle
B. Horses
C. Cats
D. Dogs
10. Which of the following canine breeds is most likely to display genetic polymorphism resulting in severe central nervous system toxicity of certain drugs?
A. Labrador Retriever
B. Collie
C. Shetland Sheepdog
D. Boxer
Evaluation Questions
11. To what extent did the program meet objective #1?
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
12. To what extent did the program meet objective #2?
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
13. To what extent did the program meet objective #3?
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
14. To what extent did the program meet objective #4?
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
15. Rate the effectiveness of how well the program related to your educational needs:
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
16. Rate how well the active learning strategies (questions, cases, discussions) were appropriate and effective learning tools:
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
17. Rate the quality of the faculty:
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
18. Rate the effectiveness and the overall usefulness of the material presented:
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
19. Rate the appropriateness of the examination for this activity:
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
20. Rate the effectiveness of how well the activity related to your practice needs:
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
21. Rate the effectiveness of how well the activity will help you improve patient care:
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
22. Will the information presented cause you to change your practice?
A. Yes
B. No
23. Are you committed to making these changes?
A. Yes
B. No
24. As a result of this activity, did you learn something new?
A. Yes
B. No
25. What is your practice setting or area of practice?
A. Community Pharmacy/Independent
B. Community Pharmacy/Chain
C. Hospital/Health Systems
D. Administrative/Pharmacy Director
E. Critical Care Pharmacy
F. Long-term Care
G. Managed Care/PBM
H. Oncology
I. Specialty Pharmacy
J. Industry/Manufacturing
26. How many years have you been in practice?
A. <5
B. 5 – 10
C. 11 – 20
D. >20
