1. The ___________, originally promulgated in 1970, is the basis for narcotic and dangerous drug law in 46 states and jurisdictions.
A. Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act
B. Federal Controlled Substances Act
C. Uniform Controlled Substances Act
D. Uniform Narcotic Drug Act
2. The Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) has classified drugs, substances, and certain chemicals used to make drugs into ____ distinct categories or Schedules depending upon the drug's acceptable medical use and the drug's abuse or dependency potential.
A. 3
B. 2
C. 10
D. 5
3. A prescription for a controlled substance must include the following information, EXCEPT:
A. Date of issue
B. Patient's name and address
C. Practitioner's name, address, and DEA registration number
D. Patient's weight and height
4. In an effort to curb the abuse of controlled substance Scheduled drugs, states have established which of the following:
A. Prescription Drug Monitoring Program (PDMP)
B. National Alliance for Model State Drug Laws (NAMSDL)
C. Alliance of States with Prescription Monitoring Programs (ASPMP)
D. Co-Op
5. A multiple prescription for a Schedule II drug would be acceptable if which of the following apply:
A. Each prescription issued is for a legitimate medical purpose by an individual practitioner acting in the usual course of his/her professional practice and is allowed under state law
B. The individual practitioner has provided written instructions on each prescription indicating the earliest date on which a pharmacy may fill each prescription
C. The individual practitioner complies fully with all other applicable requirements under the Controlled Substances Act and implementing regulations, as well as any additional requirements under state law
D. All of the above
6. A valid DEA number consists of which of the following:
A. 2 letters, 6 digits, and 1 check digit
B. First name, last name, date of birth
C. Birthday, graduation day, home address
D. 10-digit number
7. Under the Uniform Controlled Substances Act , the pharmacy must retain all Scheduled drug prescriptions for ___ years in a convenient place in the event of an inspection.
A. 4
B. 2
C. 5
D. 6
8. A DEA form ___must be used whenever Schedule I or II drugs are bought, sold, or transferred between pharmacies or qualified distributors.
A. 322
B. 435
C. 222
D. 122
9. Some examples of Schedule II drugs are
A. Cocaine, methamphetamine, methadone
B. Combination products with less than 15 mg of hydrocodone per dosage unit (e.g., Vicodin)
C. Lomotil, Motofen, Lyrica, Parepectolin
D. Ativan, Talwin, Ambien
10. Which of the following best defines a valid prescription:
A. A written and signed copy from a medical prescriber
B. An order for medication that will be dispensed to or for an ultimate user
C. A physician's orders
D. A written order to dispense
11. According to the ASPMP Web site, (www.pmpalliance.org), as of October 16, 2011, ___ states have operational PDMPs.
A. 25
B. 27
C. 37
D. 43
12. The historical information for prescribed controlled substances may be kept either in a log or _______, provided these are made available for inspection.
A. Computer hard drive
B. In patient records
C. In a secure location
D. No other place
13. When receiving a prescription for a Scheduled drug, it is important for the pharmacy technician to pay attention to the number of refills ordered. A Schedule II drug can be refilled
A. 2 times
B. 4 times
C. 5 times
D. Not at all
14. Which of the following apply to prescriptions for Schedule II drugs:
A. Must be kept separately and cannot be refilled
B. Should be filed with other prescriptions alphabetically
C. Must be available to be refilled, if necessary
D. Can be held for refill up to one year
15. All of the following drugs are examples of Schedule IV drugs, EXCEPT:
A. Xanax
B. Soma
C. Darvon
D. Testosterone
16. A patient calls your pharmacy asking if the pharmacy stocks the 10 mg tablets of Adderall. Which of the following would be a best practice in this situation:
A. Check your inventory and tell the patient what you have
B. Ask the patient how many tablets they need and check your inventory
C. Ask the patient to bring the prescription into the pharmacy so you can confirm the order and better understand the request
D. Put the patient on hold and then hang up
17. While prescriptions for Schedule II controlled substances must be written and signed by the practitioner, it should be noted that in emergency situations a prescription for a Schedule II controlled substance
A. Still has to be written and signed by the practitioner and presented as hard copy
B. Can be sent via e-Script
C. May be telephoned to the pharmacy and the prescriber must follow up with a written prescription being sent to the pharmacy within 7 days
D. May be written and signed by the nurse or physician assistant
18. A practitioner may provide individual patients with multiple prescriptions for the same Schedule II controlled substance to be filled sequentially. The combined effect of these multiple prescriptions is to allow the patient to receive, over time, up to a _______ supply of that controlled substance without returning to the office for a new prescription.
A. 1 month
B. 6 month
C. 15 day
D. 90 day
19. A prescription from Dr Barnes is presented at your store. You review his DEA number and confirm it to be which of the following:
A. AB1438513
B. AB1438517
C. AB1438516
D. AB1438515
20. Like Schedule II drugs, Schedule ___ drugs cannot be electronically sent or faxed.
A. IV
B. III
C. V
D. None of the above
Evaluation Questions
21. To what extent did the program meet objective #1?
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
22. To what extent did the program meet objective #2?
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
23. To what extent did the program meet objective #3?
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
24. To what extent did the program meet objective #4?
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
25. To what extent did the program meet objective #5?
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
26. Rate the effectiveness of how well the program related to your educational needs:
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
27. Rate how well the active learning strategies (questions, cases, discussions) were appropriate and effective learning tools:
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
28. Rate the quality of the faculty:
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
29. Rate the effectiveness and the overall usefulness of the material presented:
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
30. Rate the appropriateness of the examination for this activity:
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
31. Rate the effectiveness of how well the activity related to your practice needs:
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
32. Rate the effectiveness of how well the activity will help you improve patient care:
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
33. Will the information presented cause you to change your practice?
A. Yes
B. No
34. Are you committed to making these changes?
A. Yes
B. No
35. As a result of this activity, did you learn something new?
A. Yes
B. No