1. Which one of the following is TRUE regarding premature ejaculation (PE):
A. It is the most common sexual dysfunction among men younger than 40 years of age
B. 70% of men with erectile dysfunction experience secondary PE
C. The diagnosis of PE requires symptoms to persist for at least 3 months
D. The diagnosis of PE can be made both for heterosexual intercourse and masturbation
2. Which one of the following is TRUE regarding erectile dysfunction (ED):
A. The risk of coronary artery disease is increased by tenfold in men with ED in their 40s
B. The diagnosis of ED requires symptoms to persist for at least 3 months
C. Factors that increase the risk of ED include cardiovascular disease, diabetes, hypertension, and smoking
D. The diagnosis of ED requires difficulty in obtaining or maintaining an erection, but does not include an assessment of erectile rigidity
3. Which one of the following is TRUE regarding the treatment of PE:
A. The only U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-approved treatment for PE is dapoxetine
B. Tramadol is equal in its efficacy compared with paroxetine
C. Phosphodiesterase type 5 (PDE5) inhibitors are effective in treating PE that is secondary to ED
D. With daily dosing of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), the onset of ejaculatory delay occurs within the first 3 to 4 days
4. Which one of the following is TRUE regarding the treatment of PE with SSRIs:
A. Citalopram and paroxetine are more effective than fluoxetine or sertraline
B. Dapoxetine is a rapid onset SSRI that has a long elimination half-life necessary for treating PE
C. Daily dosing of SSRIs is equal in efficacy, but causes more side effects than on-demand dosing
D. The most effective SSRI, when given in continuous daily doses for PE, is paroxetine
5. Which one of the following is TRUE regarding the treatment of premature ejaculation with topical anesthetics:
A. The most common adverse effect from topical anesthetic creams is the loss of penile erection if left on for more than 10 minutes
B. The increase in intravaginal ejaculation latency time (IELT) with topical anesthetic creams is most similar to that seen with the daily dosing of citalopram
C. Lidocaine-prilocaine topical anesthetic formulations have not yet been FDA-approved because of concerns about methemoglobinemia associated with lidocaine
D. The primary advantage of topical anesthetic sprays compared with creams is that condoms are not necessary
6. Which one of the following does NOT have Level 1 evidence of efficacy for the treatment of ED:
A. Testosterone for hypogonadism if total testosterone is < 300 ng/dL (10.4 nmol/L)
B. Vacuum-erection therapy
C. Intracavernosal injection therapy with prostaglandin E1 (alprostadil)
D. Monotherapy with PDE5 inhibitors
7. Which one of the following PDE5 inhibitors is most likely to cause back pain and myalgia and least likely to be affected by high-fat meals:
A. Tadalafil
B. Sildenafil
C. Avanafil
D. Vardenafil
8. Which one of the following is TRUE regarding PDE5 inhibitors:
A. After review of case reports of PDE5 inhibitor-associated non-arteritic anterior ischemic optic neuropathy (NAION), the FDA concluded that a causal association exists and that patients should be warned
B. PDE5 inhibitors are contraindicated for patients with heart failure and aortic stenosis
C. PDE5 inhibitors should be used with caution in combination with drugs that are cytochrome P450 2D6 inhibitors
D. Avanafil is the least potent PDE5 inhibitor, with a daily dose range of 50 to 200 mg
9. When counseling a patient receiving a new prescription for sildenafil, all BUT which one of the following should be discussed:
A. Avoid high-fat meals when taking this drug
B. Sexual stimulation is necessary before an erection occurs because this drug does not increase sexual desire
C. Onset of effect is 1 to 2 hours
D. If a prolonged erection for more than 4 hours occurs, contact your prescriber immediately
10. Which one of the following drugs does NOT require counseling about priapism:
A. Vardenafil in doses less than 20 mg
B. Paroxetine
C. Trazodone in doses less than 150 mg
D. Avanafil
Evaluation Questions
11. To what extent did the program meet objective #1?
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
12. To what extent did the program meet objective #2?
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
13. To what extent did the program meet objective #3?
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
14. To what extent did the program meet objective #4?
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
15. Rate the effectiveness of how well the program related to your educational needs:
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
16. Rate how well the active learning strategies (questions, cases, discussions) were appropriate and effective learning tools:
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
17. Rate the quality of the faculty:
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
18. Rate the effectiveness and the overall usefulness of the material presented:
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
19. Rate the appropriateness of the examination for this activity:
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
20. Rate the effectiveness of how well the activity related to your practice needs:
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
21. Rate the effectiveness of how well the activity will help you improve patient care:
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
22. Will the information presented cause you to change your practice?
A. Yes
B. No
23. Are you committed to making these changes?
A. Yes
B. No
24. As a result of this activity, did you learn something new?
A. Yes
B. No
25. What is your practice setting or area of practice?
A. Community Pharmacy/Independent
B. Community Pharmacy/Chain
C. Hospital/Health Systems
D. Administrative/Pharmacy Director
E. Critical Care Pharmacy
F. Long-term Care
G. Managed Care/PBM
H. Oncology/Specialty Pharmacy
I. Industry/Manufacturing
26. How many years have you been in practice?
A. <5
B. 5 – 10
C. 11 – 20
D. >20