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1. Which of the following treatments has demonstrated a survival advantage in patients with metastatic melanoma?

A. IL-2 B. Dacarbazine C. Carboplatin and paclitaxel D. Nivolumab

2. ___________ negatively regulates T-cell activation during the effector phase.

A. CD28 B. Major histocompatibility complex C. PD-1 D. CTLA-4

3. All of the following statements regarding the investigational use of CTLA-4/PD-1 combination therapy are correct, EXCEPT:

A. BRAFV600 mutational status is not a factor in patient eligibility for combination therapy. B. Combination therapy is not recommended for treating patients with localized melanoma. C. Patients refractory to prior ipilimumab therapy are unlikely to respond to combination therapy. D. Combination therapy is associated with an elevated risk of drug-related toxicities compared to individual use of each agent.

4. SP is a 45-year-old woman who is negative for BRAF V600 and has failed ipilimumab treatment. What is the next BEST treatment option?

A. Nivolumab B. Dacarbazine C. Trametinib D. IL-2

5. Which of the following is a common treatment-related toxicity associated with immune checkpoint inhibitors?

A. Rash B. Thrombocytopenia C. Pneumonitis D. Conjunctivitis

6. PS is a 57-year-old female receiving pembrolizumab treatment for metastatic melanoma. She presents to your office experiencing moderate-to-severe colitis. What is the BEST strategy to manage her toxicity?

A. Permanently terminate pembrolizumab therapy B. Prescribe immediate glucocorticoid therapy C. Switch her to nivolumab therapy D. Add ipilimumab therapy

Maintenance is scheduled for 05/16/2024 5:00 PM EST - 05/17/2024 5:00 AM EST.

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1. Which of the following treatments has demonstrated a survival advantage in patients with metastatic melanoma?

2. ___________ negatively regulates T-cell activation during the effector phase.

3. All of the following statements regarding the investigational use of CTLA-4/PD-1 combination therapy are correct, EXCEPT:

4. SP is a 45-year-old woman who is negative for BRAF V600 and has failed ipilimumab treatment. What is the next BEST treatment option?

5. Which of the following is a common treatment-related toxicity associated with immune checkpoint inhibitors?

6. PS is a 57-year-old female receiving pembrolizumab treatment for metastatic melanoma. She presents to your office experiencing moderate-to-severe colitis. What is the BEST strategy to manage her toxicity?

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Maintenance is scheduled for 05/16/2024 5:00 PM EST - 05/17/2024 5:00 AM EST.

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1. Which of the following treatments has demonstrated a survival advantage in patients with metastatic melanoma?

2. ___________ negatively regulates T-cell activation during the effector phase.

3. All of the following statements regarding the investigational use of CTLA-4/PD-1 combination therapy are correct, EXCEPT:

4. SP is a 45-year-old woman who is negative for BRAF V600 and has failed ipilimumab treatment. What is the next BEST treatment option?

5. Which of the following is a common treatment-related toxicity associated with immune checkpoint inhibitors?

6. PS is a 57-year-old female receiving pembrolizumab treatment for metastatic melanoma. She presents to your office experiencing moderate-to-severe colitis. What is the BEST strategy to manage her toxicity?

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